Your interpretation of John 1:5

[Apotheose]

In John 1:5, I’ve noticed two “major strands” of translations of it. And I’d love to see what you think of them.

 

The first one, the most common, is:

 

John 1:5 - “The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it”

 

Translators vary its form also as “did not overcome” or “did not overpower” or “has not put it out”.

 

In this translation, the meaning is that Light is Absolute; It lights up Darkness, and nothing is “immune” to it; in a sense that if Light intervenes, nothing can avoid being changed and lightened by It.

 

However, the second strand of translations I’ve noticed is:

 

John 1:5 - “The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not apprehend it”

Translators diversify its form also as: “did not comprehend” or “did not appropriate” or “did not absorb”.

 

This translation, in my personal view, means the exact opposite of the first strand. While the first means Light has Absolute Interference with everything; in the second, darkness has not been intercepted by It. Or it may be intercepted, but Light has not ‘remained’ present in it.

 

What do you think of it? Which one do you consider the best translation?

[Sanity Check]

I think the translation goes back to Lucifer's associations of Morning Star and Light Bringer in the pre fallen angel era.

 

Biblical contexts of light and dark applied within a historical timeline.

Edited January 17 by Sanity Check

[Daniel]

16 hours ago, Apotheose said:

What do you think of it? Which one do you consider the best translation?

 

Here is the greek for John 1:5

 

καὶ τὸ φῶς ἐν τῇ σκοτίᾳ φαίνει, καὶ ἡ σκοτία αὐτὸ οὐ κατέλαβεν.

 

The greek word which is being translated as "over-power" vs. "apprehend" is κατέλαβεν.  It's not a common word in the Greek scriptures.  It is constructed κατέ-λαβ-εν.  The prefix is a conjugation of κατα ( "down, into, or against" ).  The suffix indicates a completed action past tense.  λαβ is generally:  "to get" physically. 

 

Oppositional "getting" is to "seize" it.  Examples: Mark 9:18, Phil 3:12-13, 1 Thes 5:4.  Although, there are other examples where something is obtained and brought into itself in a positive connotation.  This would be "comprehension".  Examples:  Acts 4:13, Ephesians 3:18.  

 

Perhaps the best examples for comparrison come directly from the book of John itself:  John 8:3-4, 12:35.

 

16 hours ago, Apotheose said:

John 1:5 - “The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not apprehend it”

 

For this one, it makes some sense for two reasons.  First, the other 3 occurences of the word ( albeit conjugated differently ) are a criminal caught in the act.  The criminal is "apprehended".  Second, traditionally, from a jewish persepctive, satan is simultaneously, the tempter, the accuser, and the prosecuting attorney for the Lord God The Most High ( אײבערשטער ).  From this perspective, it makes sense that the book of John refers to a failure to tempt, accuse, and "apprehend" Jesus.  

 

16 hours ago, Apotheose said:

John 1:5 - “The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it”

 

Thematically and in context I think this makes the most sense.  The idea being expressed in John 1 is the light being invested in the darkness of physicality.  This investment is described as going back to the very first creation of the "word" which is a vessel for divine will.  The flesh is a vessel for the light, but, the light was not ( cannot? ) be over-come or over-powered by the earthy/fleshy/physical vessel.

 

Edited January 17 by Daniel

[SirPalomides]

John probably has in mind the Stoic concept of katalepsis, basically the act of getting a firm knowledge of something, but literally meaning grasping. 

[Cobie]

17 hours ago, Apotheose said:

… has not overcome it …

 

This is right. It’s old (Koine) Greek and means “not overcame” https://biblehub.com/text/john/1-5.htm  

 

Quote

… did not apprehend it …

 

This is wrong. This is confusing it with modern Greek (it understands - καταλαβαίνει)

 

 

Edited January 17 by Cobie

[Cobie]

20 minutes ago, Cobie said:

This is right. It’s old (Koine) Greek and means “not overcame” 

This is wrong. This is confusing it with modern Greek (it understands

@ChiDragon I think this is a good example of how a native speaker (in this case of Greek) can misread the ancient texts. 

 

 

Edited January 17 by Cobie

[Apotheose]

Thank you all for the responses! And a special thanks to @Daniel for the patience to explain the meanings.

[Daniel]

2 hours ago, Apotheose said:

Thank you all for the responses! And a special thanks to @Daniel for the patience to explain the meanings.

 

You are very welcome.