Lois Posted Sunday at 11:28 PM In one city, a respected man was publicly and mortally insulted by the wife of a poor man. A few days later, she died under strange circumstances. The respected man, knowing that the poor man had no money for a coffin, sent him a coffin from his own funds for the woman’s funeral. Should the poor man see this as a subtle act of revenge, or rather consider it a great gift? Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
BigSkyDiamond Posted yesterday at 12:09 AM (edited) Since he was a "respected man," the coffin may have been sent to preserve the dignity of the poor man, and provide a respectful burial. It could show he does not hold a grudge regarding the insult. Edited yesterday at 12:12 AM by BigSkyDiamond 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Lairg Posted yesterday at 01:21 AM Sometimes there are more actors involved than seen from the human perspective 1 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
BigSkyDiamond Posted yesterday at 02:31 AM (edited) a. if the "respected" man took revenge for the public insult by killing her, then he is not a "respected" man. b. he could be giving the coffin to a poor family so as to "appear charitable." It could be one of the reasons he is described as "respected" because he publicly gives charity. c. if he were to give the coffin anonymously it would be a greater act of charity because then it is not to garner public accolades. Edited yesterday at 02:34 AM by BigSkyDiamond Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Nungali Posted 22 hours ago (edited) I would say a lot more information was needed - that the man himself might have , eg. regarding the nature of the insult and reason for it , the history and relationship of those concerned . .... I'd leave the choice up to him as what he ' should ' do . . Edited 22 hours ago by Nungali Share this post Link to post Share on other sites